NTA UGC NET JRF PAPER 1 2021 – Set 1 With Solution

NTA UGC NET JRF PAPER 1 2021 – Set 1 With Solution, NTA UGC NET SET and JRF previous year question paper with solution is available in MCQ format. Solve these mcq PYQ and analyise them.

INSTRUCTIONS TO NTA-NET ASPIRANTS
1. This paper consists of Fifty (50) objective type of Two (2) marks each.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Each item has four alternative responses marked (a),(b),(c) and (d). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item.
Example : (a)(b)(c)(d) where (c) is the correct response.
4. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet green at the end of the book
5. Read instructions provided with each questions cafefully.
6. There are no negative marks for incorrect answer.Information for Question 1 to 5:
Study the table carefully and answer the question that follow:
In the following table, total Exports and of 5 countries over 4 years ( in Rs Crore ) is given. Study the table carefully and answer the given question. (I-import E-export)

Ques 1: Find out the ratio of export done by country S and T during 2017-2020.

  • 109/115
  • 111/115
  • 108/117
  • 107/117

Exports by country S during 2017-2020 = 28+28+21+32 = 109
Exports by country T during 2017-2020 = 31+33+23+28 = 115
Thus, required ratio of exports between S and T = 109/115

Ques 2: Which country has the maximum percentage of profit increase from 2019 to 2020 ? (Profit = Export Import)

  • P
  • Q
  • R
  • S

As per question, the profit percentage increase by different countries between 2019 and 2020 is to be calculated first.
For country P
Profit in 2019 = 36-28=8
Profit in 2020 = 32-22 = 10
Percentage increase = (10-8)/8⨯10=2/8⨯100
= 25%
For country Q
Profit in 2019 = 36-29 = 8
Profit in 2020 = 34-26 = 8
Percentage increase = (8-8)/8⨯100 = 0/8⨯100
= 0%
For country R
Profit in 2019 = 36-32 = 4
Profit in 2020 = 34-28 = 6
Percentage increase = (6-4)/4⨯100=2/4⨯100
= 50%
As per question, the profit percentage increase by different countries between 2019 and 2020
For country S
Profit in 2019 = 23-12 = 11
Profit in 2020 = 28-21 = 8
Percentage increase = (7-11)/11⨯100= Reduction Thus, country S has shown the maximum increase in profit,

Ques 3: Which year has the minimum average import ?

  • 2017
  • 2018
  • 2019
  • 2020

As every figure is to be divided by 5 (number of years) to calculate average imports, we may get the answer directly by total as well, and thus save time
The total imports during different years are %
Imports during 2017 = 25+28+24+22+26 = 125
Imports during 2018 = 24+26+28+18+16 = 112
Imports during 2019 = 28+29+32+16+12 = 117
Imports during 2020 = 22+26+28+23+21 = 120
Thus, the minimum average imports were in the year 2018. Thus, the answer is (b).

Ques 4: Which year has the maximum exports ?

  • 2017
  • 2018
  • 2019
  • 2020

As every figure is to be divided by 5 (number of years) to calculate average exports, we may get the answer directly by total as well, and thus save time.
The total exports during different years are :
Exports during 2017 = 30+26+32+28+31 = 147
Exports during 2018 = 32+31+25+28+33 = 149
Export during 2019 = 36+37+36+21+23 = 153
Export during 2020 = 32+34+32+28 = 160
The maximum average exports were in the year 2020.
Thus, the answer is (d).

Ques 5: Find out the difference between the average export and average import for the country P.

  • 7.25
  • 7.75
  • 8.25
  • 8.50

the average exports b country P = 30+32+36+32 = 130/4 = 32.5
The average imports by country P = 25+24+28+22 = 99/4 = 24.75
Difference = 32.5-24.75=7.75

Ques 6: The number of characters in 8 bit ASCII code (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) is

  • 128
  • 256
  • 512
  • 64

ICT
ASCII Code :
Computers work in binary code. Information is coded using 0s and 1s. each 0 or 1 is called a bit. In the early year of computer development, different computer companies applied the binary system in their own way.
Eventually, a set of standards was developed. Computer manufactures agreed to use one code called the ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange). ASCII is an 8-bit code. That is, it uses eight bits to represent a letter or a punctuation mark eight bits are called a byte. A binary code with eight digits, such as 1101 1102, can be stored in one byte of computer memory.

Ques 7: Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
  • A-III, B-IV,C-II,D-I

Logical Reasoning
The knowledge through has been classified into
1. svartha – for oneself-one’s own inferential knowledge, through linking it with major and minor premises.
2. parartha – through justification of middle term-inferential knowledge for another.
3. Pararthanumana – if the motive is for demonstrating the truth of the conclusion to others it is called as Pararthanumana. Here, conclusion is arrived at through justification of the middle term that leads to it. A man having inferred the existence of fire in a hill lays it down as a thesis and proves it as a conclusion following from the major and minor premises and their combination into a third premise. The latter has a five membered syllogism viz.., pratijna, hetu, udaharana, upanaya and nigamana.
1st member – Pratijna (preposition) – the hill is fiery
2nd member – Hetu (reason) – because of smoke
3rd member – Udaharana (example) – wherever smoke exists, fire also exists as in kitchen.
4th member – Upanaya (application/subsumptive correlative) – there is smoke on the hill.
5th member – Nigamana (conclusion) – hence, the hill is fiery
Apart from above five, the few of the old Naiyanikas speaks of other five members of syllogism :
Jijnasa – on the desire to know the truth.
Samsaya – doubt about real nature of a thing.
Shakyaprapti – the capacity of the pramanas to lead to true knowledge.
Proyojana – the purpose of making an inference
Samshaya vyudasa – the removal of all doubts the truth of an inference.
Though Vatsyayana disagreed with the first five and stated them as irrelevant.

Ques 8: Given below are two statements
Statement I : Exploration is particularly useful when researchers lack a clear idea of the problems they will, meet during the study.
Statement II : Through exploration, researchers develop more clearly, establish priorities, develop operations, and improve the final research design.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Research Aptitude
Statement II is the solution for Statement I. For this purpose, we conduct exploratory study that is more useful in qualitative research.
In Statement II, there is list of steps in exploratory study.
Research is a continuous process that needs improvement with the passage of time, thus it is nonexhavstive. Exploratory research mostly deals wit qualitative data. Most of the researchers work on existing theories or formulations and build on them.
Some researchers are motivated to work on a problem that has not been studied very clearly to establish priorities, develop operational definitions and improving the final research design.
Much time is spent on exploring the problem so that better insights are built insights are built for the future. It usually doesn’t lead to a conclusive result. Iit starts on a general idea and we try to specify the related issues with the topic of the research.
Exploratory research is inexpensive, highly interactive and opne-ended in nature. There is usually no prior relevant information available from past researchers. Since there is no standard for carrying out exploratory research, it is usually flexible and scattered.

Ques 9: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : According to Naiyayikas, the fallacy of Savyabhicara occurs when the middle term leads to different opposite conclusions.
Reason R : When the middle term is irregular, it is distributively not related to the major term.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A is false but R is true
  • A is true but R is false
  • Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanations of A

Logical Reasoning
This question pertains to irregular behaviour of ‘Middle Term’. We can solve other questions, linked directly with Indian philosophy as in the following manner.
The fallacies in Anumana that can be termed as hetvabhasha may occur due to the following :
(i) Asiddha : this fallacy occurs due to unproved hetu. It is also called as Paksadharmata.
(a) Ashrayasiddha : If Pksha (minor term) itself is unreal, then there cannot be locus of the hetu. For example, the sky-lotus be locus of the hetu. For example, the sky-lotus is fragrant, because it is a lotus like any other lotus.
(b) Svarupasiddha : it is not possible that Hetu exist in paksa. For example, wherever there is fire, there is smoke’. The presence of smoke is because of wet fuel.
(ii) Savyabhichara: this is termed as the fallacy of irregular hetu.
(a) Sadharana : here, the hetu is considered too wide. It is present in both sapaksa and vipaksa. The hill has fire because it is knowable.
(b) Asadharana : here, the hetu is considered too narrow. It is present only in the aksa. It is not present in the Sapaksa and it the Vipaksha. For example, ‘sound is eternal because it is audible’.
(c) Anupasamhari :
(iii) Satpratipaksa : in this case, one hetu is contradicted by another hetu. In case, both have equal force, then nothing should follow. For example, ‘sound is eternal, because it is audible’, and ‘sound is noneternal, because it is produced’. The word, ‘audible’ is counterbalanced by produced’. Here, ‘audible’ and ‘produced’ carry the equal force.
(iv) Badhita : here, the another proof (as defined by perception) definitely contradicts and disproves the middle term (hetu). For example, ‘fire is cold because it is a substance’.
(v) Viruddha : Here, the virudha, instead of proving something it is proving the opposite. For example, ‘sound is eternal because it is produced’.

Ques 10: In order to transform the regulatory system of Higher Education, the NEP proposes to set up HECI (Higher Education Commission of India). Which of the following are verticals of HECI ?
A. NHERC
B. NAS
C. HEGC
D. NCIVE
E. NAC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A,B and C only
  • A,C and E only
  • B,C and E only
  • C,D, and E only

Higher Education System
New Education Policy, 2020 proposes a single regulator for higher education institutions across the country, that will be called as Higher Education Council of India (HECI). It will have four verticals for its various roles.
(i) National Higher Education Regulatory Council (NHERC) : it will function as the common, single ponint regulator for the higher education sector including teacher education. It however excludes medical and legal education.
(ii) National Accreditation Council (NAC) – a ‘meta-accrediting body’) : it will be based primarily on basic norms, public self-disclosure, good governance, and outcomes. It will be carried out by independent accrediting institutions supervised and overseen by NAC.
(iii) Higher Education Grants Council (HEGC) : It will look into funding and financing of colleges and universities.
(iv) General Education Council (GEC) : It will frame expected learning outcomes for higher education programs, also referred to as ‘graduate attributes’. GEC will formulate a National Higher Education Qualification Framework (NHEQF).

Ques 11: United Nations Environmental Program (UNEP) was the result of deliberations held during

  • Earth Summit at Rio do Janeiro in 1992
  • Human Environmental Conference at Stockholm in 1972
  • Kyoto Protocol 1997
  • Montreal Protocol 1987

People, Development and Environment
Here, we have taken a broad view to deal with future questions. Since 1972, United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) has been the lobal authority tainable development’ for future generations and an authoritative advocate for the global environment. UNEP is headquartered in representatives from civil society, businesses, etc. through the UN Environment Assembly, the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the environment.
UNEP’s medium-Term Strategy (MTS) articulates its role in delivering the promises of the ‘2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20) as well as its outcome document, “The Future We Want”
Through its campaigns, particularly ‘World Environment Day’ (June 5), UNEP raises awareness and advocates for effective environmental action. The Day was established in 1972 by the UN at ‘Stockolm Conference on the Human Environment’ (5-16 June, 1972). This day is connected with the launch of ‘UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration 2021-2030’. A step further, UNEP can be further linked with UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), Conference of Parties (COPs) Kyoto Protocol, Paris Agreement and COP26 Glasgow meeting asking for Zero Emissions. World seems to have set year 2050 as the target year for Zero Emissions and India has set Year 2070 for its own emissions during Glasgow COP26 Meeting.

Ques 12: Which one of the following is an important characteristic of the researchers involved in qualitative study ?

  • Enthusiasm
  • Non-partisan
  • Reflexivity
  • Transparency

Research Aptitude
Reflexivity : Research should be classified as a “Mission’, the researchers get in this mission and their own personalities become part of it. Conducting qualitative research, such as fieldwork, changes a researcher in many ways. Through reflexivity, researchers acknowledge the changes brought about in themselves as a result of the research process and how these changes have affected the research process. Thus, this reflexivity is an iterative and empowering process. Reflexivity should be recognized as a significant part of the research findings. Thus, it is an analytic attention to the researcher’s role in qualitative research”, it is both a concept and a process. As a concept, it refers to a certain level of consciousness.
There are the few basic principles in the linked qualitative research :
(i) Feminist principle
(ii) Rights-based research : the respect of human rights of participants during the research process.
(iii) Participatory research principles : it recognizes that people have expert knowledge and deep insight into their own lives and communities.

Ques 13: Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R Assertion A : in Classroom communication, teachers should acknowledge and take into account students views.
Reason R : in a classroom the probability of message reception can be enhanced by establishing a viewpoint.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

  • A is false but R is true
  • A is true but R is false
  • Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

Communication/Teaching Aptitude
This questions is linked with feedback in the classroom to make it effective communication. A teacher should be proficient in all four modes of communication-listening, speaking, reading, and writing-and should know how to utilize this proficiency effectively in an educational institute environment. Being able to do this has been proven to impact the success students achieve in their academic lives, as well as the teacher’s own career success.

Ques 14: If’ All men are mortal’ is given as True, then which of the following options can be validly inferred from it ?
A. Not men is mortal is False
B. Some men are mortal’ is True
C. Some men are not mortal’ is True
D. Some men are not mortal is False.
E. Some men are mortal is False
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A,B and D only
  • A,B and C only
  • A,B,C and D only
  • B,C,D and E only

Logical Reasoning
If ‘all men are mortal’ is true, then ……
To deal with such questions, we need to take help from ‘square of opposition’.
Contradictories : Contradictory propositions cannot be simultaneously true and false. If one is true, the other is necessarily false. If one is true, the other is necessarily false and vice versa. That is, if ‘A’ is true, ‘O’ is false; ‘E’ is false.

Contrary : when two universal proposition differ only in quality. B definition, both opposite propositions can be both false and true at the same time. If one of them is true, the other must necessarily be false. If one is false, the other may be true or false. That is, if ‘E’ is true, ‘O’ is true.
Sub-alternation : when two prepositions differ only in quantity (one is universal and the other is special), such an opposition is said to be sub-alternation. These propositions may be simultaneously true or simultaneously false. That is, if ‘O’ is true, then ‘E’ is false; ‘I’ is true
Thus, if ’all men are mortal’ is true, then we can validly infer that No men are mortal is false’ (Contrary). Some men are mortal is true (Sub-alteration) and ‘Some men are not mortal’ (Contradictory proposition).

Ques 15: INFLIBNET centre, which is an autonomous Inter University Centre of the University Grants Commission, maintains

  • e-Gyankosh
  • e-Pathshala
  • Shodhganga
  • Swayam Prabha

Information and Communication Technology (ICT) INFLIBNET-it is abbreviation of information Inter-University Centre (IUC) of UGC. It is located in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. It is a major National Programme initiated by the UGC in March 1991 as a project under the IUCAA, it became an independent inter-University Centre in June 1996. INFLIBNET is involved in modernizing university libraries in India using the state-of-art technologies for the optimum utilization of information. INFLIBNET is set out to be a major player in promoting scholarly communication among academicians and researcher in Indai.
The following institutions and projects are linked with it.
1. Shodhganga- A reservoir of Indian Theses
2. INDCAT – online Union Catalogue of Indian Universities
3. SOUL – State-of-art Integrated Library Management System
4. e-ShodhSindhu – Consortium for Higher Education e-Resources
5. ShodhShuddhi – Provides Plagiarism Detection Software to Institutions
6. IRINS – Research Information Management System for Institutions
7. Vidhya-Mitra – Integrated e-Content Portal
8. Vidwan – Expert Database & National Researcher Network
9. e-PG Pathshala – an initiative of the Ministry of Education under its National Mission on Education through ICT (NME-ICT) being executed by UGC.
10. e-Pathya : It is one the verticals of e-PG Pathshala which is software driven course/content package that facilitates students pursuing higher education (PG level) in distance learning as well as campus learning mode. It also facilitates offline access.
11. e-Adhyayan (e-Books) : e-Adhyayan is a plat-form to provide 700+e-Books for the Post-Graduate Courses. All the e-Books are derived from e-PG Pathshala courses. It also facilitates play-list of video content.
12. UGC-MOOCs. It is one of vertical to produce course on Post Graduate subjects in SWAYAM (Online Courses, a Ministry of Education initiative). UGC is one of the national coordinator of SWAYAM, and INFLIBNET is technical partner for UGC-MOOCs.

Ques 16: Given below are two statements regarding the Router Statement I : It enables data packets to be routed between different networks. Statement II: it works in the Data Link Layer.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Information and Communication Technology (ICT) Routers are networking devices. They are responsible for receiving, analysing, and forwarding data packets among the connected computer networks. on the arrival of a data packet, the router inspects the destination address, consults its routing tables to decide the optimal route and then transfers the packet along this route.
A router can be used both in LANs (Local Area Network) and WANs (Wide Area Networks). Routers are more expensive than other networking devices like hubs, bridges and switches. Routers are manufactured by some popular companies such as Cisco, D-Link, HP, Nortel etc.
A router is a layer 3 or network layer device in OSI Model while data link layer works in the layer 2 of OSI Model. Data link layer is responsible for maintaining the data link between two hosts or nodes.

Ques 17: Survey research is based on which of the following ?

  • Constructivism
  • Hermeneutics
  • Interpretivism
  • Positivism

research Aptitude
Survey Research
Survey research a research method involving the use of standardized questionnaires or interviews to collect data about people and their preferences, thoughts, and behaviors in a systematic manner. As surveys are used to collect data from a predefined subject(s), they have been counted under ‘positivism’ approach.
The survey as a formal research method was pioneered in the 1930-40s by sociologist Paul Lazarsfeld to examine the effects of the radio on political opinion formation of the United States. This method has since become a very popular method for quantitative research in the social sciences.
The survey method can be used for descriptive, exploratory, or explanatory research.
Survey research has several inherent strengths compared to other research methods due to following reasons.
(i) Survey is an excellent vehicle to measure a wide variety of data-people’s preferences (political orientation), traits (self-esteem), attitudes (toward immigrants), beliefs (about a new law), behaviors (smoking), or factual information (income).
(ii) it is ideally suited for remotely collecting data about a population. For example, a large nation such as India or its state UP, MP, Maharashtra that can be covered using mail-in, electronic mail, or telephone surveys. Researches can use well planned sampling to ensure that the population is adequately represented in a small sample.
(iii) Interviews may be the only way of reaching certain population groups such as the homeless or illegal immigrants for which there is no sampling frame available.
(iv) Survey research is economical in terms of researcher time, effort and cost than most other methods such as experimental research and case research.
At the same time, survey research also has some unique disadvantages. It is subject to a large number of biases such as non-response bias, sampling bias, social desirability bias, and recall bias, etc.
Depending on data collection techniques, survey research can be divided into two broad categories :
(i) Questionnaire surveys-mail-in, group-administered, or online surveys), and
(ii) Interview surveys – personal, telephone, or focus group interviews (These have been discussed in detail in second unit of Pearson title for NTA-NET exam).
Constructing a survey questionnaire (or interviewing) is an art. For the benefit of research students, the following responses to structured questions have been suggested.
(i) Dichotomous response – responses such as true/false, yes/no, or agree/disagree. Is MSP required for crops-Yes/No
(ii) Nominal response – more than two unordered options. What is your industry of employment : manufacturing / supply chain / consumer services / retail / education.
(iii) Ordinal response – more than two ordered options. What is your highest level of education : high school / college degree / graduate studies / PG / PhD.
(IV) Interval-level response- when respondents are presented with a 5-point or 7-point Linkert scale, semantic differential scale, or Guttman scale etc.
(v) Continuous response – when respondents enter a continuous (ratio-scaled) value with a meaningful zero point, such as their age or tenure in a firm. These responses generally tend to be of the fill-in-the blanks type.
The survey questions should be stated in a very simple language, preferably in active voice, and without complicated words or jargon so that they are clearly understandable by a typical respondent. Questions must not be biased and too much detailed.
Double-barreled questions are those that can have multiple answers. For example, are you satisfied with the hardware and software provided for your work ?
Question should not be presumptuous such as on taxes-too high or too low. Avoid questions with built-in presumptions.
‘Question sequencing’ should be proper, such as questions should flow logically from one to the next.
Role of interviewer should be motivational for respondents.
They should make a good questionnaire.
Just pausing and waiting (without going into the next question) may suggest to respondents that the interviewer is waiting for more detailed response. It is called as ‘Silent probe’.
The interviewer can try the psychotherapist’s trick of repeating what the respondent said is called as ‘Reflection’.
Five common biases in survey research are nonresponse bias, sampling bias (excluding some people who don’t have some resources such as mobile phone), social desirability bias (avoid negative opinions), recall bias (subjects’ motivation, memory, and ability to respond). Common method bias refers to the amount of spurious covariance shared between independent and dependent variables that are measured at the same point in time such as in a cross sectional survey, using the same instrument, such as a questionnaire.

Ques 18: The number of Sustainable Development Goals is

    Weismann

  • 13
  • 15
  • 17
  • 19

People, Development and Environment
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
SDGs, also known as the Global Goals, were adopted by the United Nations in 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure that by 2030 all people enjoy peace and prosperity.
The 17 SDGs are integrated-they recognize that action in one area will affect outcomes in others, and that development must balance social, economic and environmental sustainability.
GOAL 1 : NO POVERTY
GOAL 2: ZERO HUNGER
GOAL 3 : GOOD HEALTH AND WELL-BEING
GOAL 4 : QUALITY EDUCATION
GOAL 5 : GENDER EQUALITY
GOAL 6 : CLEAN WATER AND SANITATION
GOAL 7 : AFFORDABLE AND CLEAN ENERGY
GOAL 8 : DECENT WORKAND ECONOMIC GROWTH
GOAL 9 : INDUSTRY, INNOVATION AND INFRASTRUCTURE
GOAL 10 : REDUCED INEQUALITIES
GOAL 11 : SUSTAINABLE CITIES AND COMMUNITIES
GOAL 12 : RESPONSIBLE CONSUMPTION AND PRODUCTION
GOAL 13 : CLIMATE ACTION
GOAL 14 : LIFE BELOW WATER
GOAL 15 : LIFE ON LAND
GOAL 16: PEACE, JUSTICE AND STRONG INSTTTUTIONS
GOAL 17 : PARTNERSHIPS FOR THE GOALS

Ques 19: Global citizenship Education promotes

  • Common international laws for global citizenship
  • International public relations
  • Issues pertaining to citizenship across countries involving VISA
  • more peaceful, tolerant, inclusive, secure and sustainable societies

Higher Education System
Global Citizenship Education : Topics and learning objectives, should be counted as the first pedagogical guidance from UNESCO on global citizenship education. With such education, young people are able to solve problems, make decisions, think critically, communicate ideas effectively and work well with others. This not only helps them personally as well. Thus, a global education in the classroom is paramount.

Ques 20: Marshall Mmeluhan’s name is associated with the assertion :

  • A message is a message
  • The medium is the message
  • The message determines the medium accurately
  • the message is the medium

Communication
‘The medium is the message’ is an expression coined by Canadian educator Marshall McLuhan that is often interpreted to mean that the “media” used to communicate information have a significant impact on the messages they deliver. The form of a message (print, visual, musical, etc.) determines the ways in which that message will be perceived. Modern electronic communications (including radio, television, films, and computers) would have far-reaching sociological, aesthetic, and philosophical consequences, to the point of actually altering the ways in which we experience the world.

Ques 21: How many terms are there in the series 168,175,182, _____266 ?

  • 13
  • 14
  • 15
  • 16

Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
We can solve this question, by counting all the items with the difference d(i.e 175-168 = 182-175) Or by using the following formula of Arithmetic Progression
An = 266, a = 168 and d = 7
Formula : an = a+(n-1)d
266 = 168 + (n-1)7
n-1 = (266-168)/7 = 98/7 = 14
n = 14 + 1 = 15
thus, (c) is the correct answer.

Ques 22: Which of the following fractions is the smallest ?

  • 11/16
  • 29/40
  • 5/8
  • 65/80

Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
The highest denominator in options is 80. We will make every fraction equal to 80.
11/16⨯5/5 = 55/80
29/40⨯2/2 = 58/80
5/8 = 5/8⨯10/10=50/80
65/80-no change required.
Now every fraction has 80 as denominator, we need to compare only numerators to compare.
Thus 5/8 is the smallest fraction.

Ques 23: Which among the following are no-parametric statistics ?
A. t-test
B. F-test
C. Spearman’s rank order correlation
D. Mann-Whitney-Wilcoxon test
E. Kendall coefficient of concordance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A,B and C only
  • B,C and D only
  • B,D and E only
  • C,D and E only

Research Aptitude
Non-parametric (and Parametric tests) : First, we need to look at some basic difference between parametric and non-parametric tests.
In parametric tests, the parameters are assumed and the population distribution is always known. To calculate the central tendency, a mean value is used. In such tests, we assume normal distribution curve (bell shaped curve). For example, if we were to measure the height of people (in a population), we take some sample, we would see a typical bell-shaped curve. This distribution is also called the Gaussian distribution.
In statistics, nonparametric tests are methods of statistical analysis that do not require a distribution to meet the required assumptions to be analyzed (especially if the data is not normally distributed). Due to this reason, they are sometimes referred to as distribution-free tests.
Parametric test are generally more powerful than the non-parametric tests, where smaller sample sizes are required in parametric tests.
Type of no-parametric Tests
1 sample sign test
1 sample Wilcoxon Signed Rank Test
Friedman Test
Goodman Kruska’s Gamma
Kruskal-Wallis Test
The Mann-Kendall Trend Test
Mann-Whitney Test
Mood’s median Test
Sperman Rank Correlation

Ques 24: Identify the fallacy committed in the argument :
Some birds are not beautiful creatures. All dogs are beautiful creatures.
Therefore, no dogs are birds.

  • Fallacy of Exclusive Premises
  • Fallacy of the Illicit Process of Major Term
  • Fallacy of the Illicit Process of Minor Term
  • Fallacy of the Undistributed Middle Term

Logical Reasoning
Exclusive premise : the fallacy of exclusive premises is a syllogistic fallacy committed in a categorical syllogism that is invalid because both its premises are negative.
Illicit major : Illicit major is a formal fallacy committed in a categorical syllogism that is invalid because its major term is undistributed in the major premise but distributed in the conclusion.

Premise Type Distributed
Some birds are ‘O’ type only predicate
note beautiful (Particular
creatures. Negative)
Therefore, no E type (Universal both subject
dogs are birds negative) and predicate
thus, in premises 1 some birds (major term/subject) are undistributed. in the conclusion dogs (subject and the birds (predicate) both are distributed.
Undistributed middle : the fallacy of the undistributed middle the term in a categorical syllogism is not distributed in either the minor premise or the major premise. Its is thus a syllogistic fallacy.
Illicit minor : the fallacy of illicit minor term is undistributed in the premise but is distributed in the conclusion (but not vice-versa).

Ques 25: The communication among persons working at different levels who have no direct reporting relationship is called :

  • Diagonal communication
  • Horizontal commuication
  • Intrapersonal communication
  • Upward communication

Communication
Diagonal communication : the communication among the persons at different levels who have no direct relationship is called diagonal relationship. This communication is effective as hierarchical bindings are removed and there is a free flow of information, cutting across different positions.
Horizontal communication : communication with people at the same level in a hierarchy of peers and colleagues is termed as horizontal communication.
This may combine both formal and informal communication.
Intrapersonal communication : it is a communication within an individual almost all the times, such as talking to oneself, listening to oneself and relating to oneself. It includes individual reflection, meditation, contemplation and praying to God.
Upward communication : this communication is the process of information flowing from the lower levels of a hierarchy to the upper levels. It is the process by which lower-level company employees can directly communicate with upper management regarding the day-to-day operations of the company.

Ques 26: Which region of the brain is involved in our ability to learn new information, particularly if it is verbal ?

  • Cerebrum
  • Hippocampus
  • Pons
  • Thalamus

(a,b,d) People, Development and Environment
Cerebrum : Cerebrum, the largest and uppermost portion of the brain. The cerebrum consists for two-thirds of the total weight of the brain.
Hippocampus : it is a small, curved formations in the brain that plays an important role in the limbic system. It is involved in the formation of new memories and is also associated with learning and emotions.
Pons : it is a portion of the hindbrain that connects the cerebral cortex with the medulla oblongata. It also serves as a communications and coordination centre between the two hemispheres of the brain.
Thalamus : the thalamus functions as a relay station in which sensory pathways of the spinal cord and brainstem form synapses on their way to the cerebral cortex. Specific locations in the thalamus are related to specific area on the body surface and in the cerebral cortex.

Ques 27: Match List I with List II

  • A-1, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  • A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • A-IV, B-III, C-II,D-I

Higher Education System
Indian Institute of Advance Study (IIAS) : this research institute is based in Shimla. It was set up by the Ministry of Education in 1964 and it started functioning in 1965.
Indian Biological Science and Research Institute (IBRI) : it is located in Noida, UP. IBRI is run by the academicians from different technological fields such as Pharmaceutics, Biotechnology, Bioinformatics, Information Technology and Mathematics. The mandate of IBRI is to undertake research and training from basics to industrial level in biosciences domains.
Indian Institute of Soil Science (IISS) : this institute is linked with ICAR (Indian Council of Agriculture Research). ICAR-IISS was established in 1988 at Bhopal with a mandate of “Enhancing Soil Productivity with Minimum Environmental Degradation”. IISS has emerged as a leader in basic and strategic research on soils in the country.
Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research (IISR) : IISR was established in Lucknow in 1952. It deals with basic issues linked with sugarcane. In 1954, its working was taken care of by Government, then in 1969 it was transferred to ICAR, New Delhi along with other central agricultural research institutes.

Ques 28: A total of 324 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of 72. The number of 20 paise coins is

  • 124
  • 125
  • 144
  • 200

Mathematical reasoning and Aptitude
Let number of 20 paise coin = X
Then number of 25 paise coins = 324 – X
Total value = X (20/100) + (324-x) 25/100 = 71
X/5 + (324 – X)/4 = 71
X = 200
Thus, the number of 20 paise coins is 200.

Ques 29: Given below are two statements
Statement I: Policy action and implementation plans require sound database systems at the regional level only.
Statement II: The statistical system should ensure its impeccability with data architecture, security, quality, cleaning and integration.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Higher Education system
This question is linked with good governance, so linked with public. Data (statistics) and ICT are also going to be part of it. Ther seems to be some aberration in statement II.

Ques 30: Match List I with with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  • A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Information and Communication Technology this is a direct question of matching.

Ques 31: Which one of the following is an example of a technological barrier in communication ?

  • Complexity of ideas
  • Low bandwidth of internet
  • Personal attitude towards technology
  • Physical locations of communicators

Communication
Technological barrier : low bandwidth of internet is example of technological barrier.
Psychological barrier : Complexity of ideas and personal attitude towards technology is an example psychological barrier.
Geographical barriers : physical locations of communicators is a geographical barrier.
Semantic barrier : communication barriers related to language and the meaning of the words.

Ques 32: Given below are two statements
Statement I : the compound interest on 280 for 18 months at 10% per annum is 44.3. statement it : at 5.6% rate of simple interest, a certain sum will be doubled in 15 years
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are false
  • Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  • Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  • Statement I is true Statement II is false

Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
Statement I
Amount = 280 (1+10/100) (1+5/100)
= 280 (11/10)21/20) = 323.4
Compound Interest = Amount – Principal
= 323.4 – 280 = 43.4
The given answer is 44.3.
Statement II
This question is based on simple interest, so interest will be 5.6 on 100 every annum. In 15 years, total SI will be 15⨯5.6 = 84. Thus, amount will not be doubled, but much less than that.
Thus, both statements are not correct.

Ques 33: The Post Office protocol is

  • Protocol used for sending emails
  • Protocol used for transfer of files from one computer to another computer
  • Protocol used to handle email attachments
  • Protocol used when receiving emails from the email server

Information and Communication Technology In computing, the Post Office Protocol is an application-layer Internet standard protocol used by e-mail clients to retrieve e-mail from a mail server. POP version 3 is the version in common use.
The Post Office Protocol provides access via an Internet Protocol (IP) network for a user client application to a mailbox (maildrop) maintained on a mail server. Thus, the protocol used when receiving emails from the email server.

Ques 34: CBCS is

  • Choice Based Credit System
  • Credit Based Choice Scores
  • Criteria based Choice System
  • Criteria Based Creditable Scores

Higher Education System
CBCS stands for the choice-based credit system.
CBCS grading systems surpass the ‘conventional percentage’ and grading means to evaluate a student’s academic skills. CBCS follows a more standardized way of assessment and examination management. CBCS software grading system is uniform across all educational institutes. It follows the semester pattern and not the annual examination pattern.
UGC also follows a 10-point grading system, with 0 being absent/fail and 10 being outstanding.
Evaluation in choice Based Credit System in Higher Education

Ques 35: mooKIT platform uses, an open source content management system.

  • DRUPAL
  • JOOMLA
  • Moodle
  • SAKAI

Teaching Aptitude/ICT
DRUPAL : Drupal is a free software package that allows an individual or a community of users to easily publish, manage and organize a wide variety of content on a website.
Drupal is used by mooKIT platform for open source content management system.
JOOMLA : This uses to build, organize, manage and publish content for websites, blogs, Intranets and mobile applications.
Moodle : Moodle is a free and open-source learing management system (LMS) written in PHP and distributed under GNU (General Public licence)]. Moodle is used for blended learning, distance education, flipped classroom and other e-learning projects in schools, universities, workplaces and other sectors
SAKAI : Sakai is a free, community source, educational software platform designed to support teaching, research and collaboration. Systems of this type are also known as Course Management Systems (CMS), Learning Management Systems (LMS), or Virtual Learning Environments (VLE).

Ques 36: Following are some statements regarding file transfer protocol (FTP). Choose the correct statements
A. It is used to access the world wide wed (www)
B. It is used to download data from file servers
C. It is used for very small files
D. Files are transferred from one device to another
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A and B only
  • A and C only
  • B and C only
  • B and D only

Information and Communication Technology
File Transfer Protocol (FTP) : FTP is a standard communication protocol used for the transfer of computer files from a server to a client on a computer network. FTP is built a client0server model architecture using separate control and data connections between the client and the server. FTP users may authenticate themselves with a clear-text sign-in protocol, normally in the form of a username and password. FTP is often secured with SSL/TLS (FTPS) or replaced with SSH File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) for secure transmission.

Ques 37: According to Urie Bronfenbrenner’s biological model of human development, microsystem constitutes
A. Immediate family
B. School
C. Beliefs
D. Customs
E. Neighbourhood
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A,B and E only
  • A,B and C only
  • A,C and E only
  • C,D and E only

People, Development and Environment
According to Urie Bronfenbrenner’s biological model of human development, microsystem constitutes immediate family, schools and neighbourhood.

Ques 38: Given below are two statements
Statement I : Small amount of atmospheric Nitrogen dioxide NO2 is produced from polluting sources
Statement II : Most of the atmospheric NOW is produced due to photochemical reactions in the atmosphere
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

People, Development and Environment
Statement I : small amount of atmospheric Nitrogen dioxide is produced from polluting sources.
NO2 is an intermediate in the industrial synthesis of nitric acid. It is largely used in the production of fertilisers also. At higher temperatures it is a reddish-brown gas. It can be fatal if inhaled in large quantity.
Statement II : Most of the atmospheric NO2 is produced due to photochemical reactions in the atmosphere.
Nitrogen dioxide, NO2, present in air is known to be photochemically active due to the presence of an unpaired electron. NO2 molecule reaches a higher level of energy when it absorbs a photon of light with energy, which converts the ground state molecule to electronically excited state molecule. NO2, Ozone and PAN show photochemical reactions and photochemical smog is formed.

Ques 39: The average of ten number is 7. If each number is multiplied by 11, then the average of the new set of numbers is :

  • 72
  • 77
  • 78
  • 82

Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude
If each averaged number, X’ is multiplied by an another number, Y, then new average will be multiplication of those numbers, that is X.Y. thus, answer to this question will be 7⨯11 = 77.

Ques 40: Which of the following water borne diseases may be caused by virus, bacteria and protozoa ?

  • Cholera
  • Diarrhea
  • Hepatitis
  • Typhoid

People, Development and Environment
Diarrhoea is a type of waterborne disease which is caused by virus bacteria and protozoa. The main symptoms of diarrhea are frequent loose, watery stools and a pressing urge to have a bowel movement. The most common causes of acute and persistent diarrhea are infection, travelers’ diarrhea, and side effects of medicines. Many viruses cause diarrhea, including norovirus link and rotavirus link. Viral gastroenteritis is a common cause of acute diarrhea.

Ques 41: Given below are two statements
Statement I : According to Piaget, the ability to sole conservation problems depends on having an understanding of three basic aspects of reasoning : identity, compensation, and reversibility.
Statement II : The stage of classification does not depend on a student’s ability to focus on a single characteristic of objects in a set and group the objects according to that characteristic.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Teaching Aptitude
According to Piaget, the ability to solve conservation problems depends on having an understanding of there basic aspects of reasoning : identity, compensation and reversibility.
Jean Piaget mentioned the following stages for cognitive development :
(i) Sensory Period (0-2 years)
(ii) Pre-operational period (2-7 years)
(iii) Concrete operational period (7-11 years)
(iv) Formal operation period (11-15 years)
The stage of classification depends on students’ ability to focus on a single characteristic of objects in a set and group of objects according to that characteristic. Thus, statement II is incorrect.

Ques 42: Some of the type of hypothesis are as follows :
A. Descriptive
B. Null
C. Confounding
D. Intervening
E. Explanatory (Causal)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • A,B and D only
  • A,B and E only
  • A,B and C only
  • B, C and D only

Research Aptitude
Descriptive Hypothesis : this contains only one variable so it is called a univariate hypothesis. This typically states the existence, size, form or distribution of some variable. It describes the situation or collects the data, the same as it has happened without adding our own assumptions as a researcher
Null Hypothesis : the null hypothesis (often denoted H0) is that two possibilities are the same. The null hypothesis is that the observed difference is due to chance alone. Using statistical tests, it is possible to calculate the likelihood that the null hypothesis is true.
Explanatory Hypothesis : This hypothesis guides the cause and effect relationship between two variables. For example, when salaries increase, then spending on food items also increase.
Intervening and confounding variables add to the impact of independent variables on dependent variables.

Ques 43: ———— messages have more or less same meaning for the audience.

  • Abstract
  • Complex
  • Connotative
  • Denotative

Logical Reasoning
The denotative meaning of a word is simply the commonly accepted meaning or the definition that you would find if you were to look up that word in a dictionary.
Typically, the connotative meaning of a word has more of an emotional association and is more likely to trigger an emotional response than the denotative meaning.

Ques 44: Given below are two statements
Statement I : Truth and Falsehood are predicates of Arguments Statement II : Validity and Invalidity are predicates of Statements
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • Both Statements I and Statement II are correct
  • Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • Statements I is correct but Statements II is incorrect
  • Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Logical Reasoning
Truth and falsehood are predicates of a statement and validity and invalidity are predicates of an argument.

Ques 45: Which of the following state has maximum installed wind power as per MNRE’s latest report ?

  • Andhra Pradesh
  • Karnataka
  • Maharashtra
  • Tamil Nadu

Tamil Nadu

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions
46-50 :
Leadership studies are an emergent discipline, and the concept of leadership will continues to change. Leadership lore is defined as an influence relationship among leaders and followers who want real change and outcomes that reflect their shared purpose. Leadership involves influence. It occurs among people ; those people who intentionally desire significant changes, and the changes reflect purpose shared by the leaders and their followers.
Influence means that the relationship among people is not passive ; however, also part of this definition is that influence is multidirectional. It does not use orders or threats to make somebody do something. The basic cultural values in America make it easiest to think of leadership and something a leader does to a follower. However, leadership has an effect in both directions. In most organizations, superiors influence subordinates, but subordinates also influence superiors. The people involved in the relationship want real and important changes- leadership involves creating change, not maintaining what normally happens. In addition, the changes sought are not dictated by leaders, but reflect purposes that leaders and followers share. Moreover, change is toward an out come that the leaders and follower both want ; a desired future or shared purpose that motivates them toward this more preferable outcome. An important aspect of leadership is influencing others to come together around a common vision. Thus, leadership involves the influence of people to bring about change toward a desirable future.

Ques 46: What is the main theme of this passage ?

  • Argument about leadership
  • Explanation of leadership construct
  • Models of leadership
  • Pros and cons of leadership

Explanation of leadership construct

Ques 47: The concept of leadership discussed in this passage is

  • exceptional
  • Horizontal
  • Individualistic
  • Vertical-top down

Horizontal

Ques 48: “Leadership studies are an emerging discipline”, means :

  • Leadership studies are a valid field of research
  • Leadership studies are an established field
  • Leadership studies is an elaborate field
  • Leadership studies is an evolving domain of scholarship

Leadership studies is an evolving domain of scholarship

Ques 49: What should be the outcome of leadership action ?

  • Movement towards common vision of the leader and the followers
  • Movement towards the vision of the leader
  • Movement towards the vision of the majority
  • Strengthening of the authority of leaders

Movement towards common vision of the leader and the followers

Ques 50: What variables are used for defining leadership ?

  • Power to affect relationship and desire for change in the true sense of the team
  • Power to change and control
  • Power to effect and desire for mandated change
  • Power to get things done quickly by influence

Power to get things done quickly by influence

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